English question

[averygoodun42]

"...used quotation marks to signify irony."

Now... I believe that is technically correct, but would it better to say "indicate irony"? What is the (connotative or any other) difference between the two words?

And on a side note, I think (but have no patience to research) that while "signify irony" may be correct but "signify the irony" isn't (for that sentence structure), "indicate irony" and "indicate the irony" both are.

Thoughts? Comments? In-depth explanations?

Bueller?

Comments

[daintress.livejournal.com]

"indicate the irony" would only make sense if followed by the word "of" and an explanation of what was ironic. Otherwise, you're just throwing a useless "the" in there.

Aside from that, though, I don't think there is any appreciable difference between the use of "signify" or "indicate" in this particular context.

[averygoodun.livejournal.com]

True... although it would have been referring to something mentioned earlier in the sentence, so it still would have been correct, if more (and perhaps needlessly) complex.

Thanks!

[shiv5468.livejournal.com]

I think that the difference may be that indicates is rather more direct - show - as opposed to signify which tends more to represent / connote.

Whether that makes any difference in this context.....

I'd not use the irony in either case, but confine that usage to occasions when I am referring to a particular ironic thing / comment as opposed to all irony in general,

[averygoodun.livejournal.com]

That's more or less what I thought.

"The irony" would have been appropriate as well, as the specific irony was represented earlier in the sentence, but unnecessary.

Thanks!